CBSE Question Paper for Examination 2020-ECONOMICS (Code-58/4/1, 2, 3)
Code-58/4/1, 2, 3
Question
Paper for Examination 2020
Class XII
ECONOMICS
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 100
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:
(i) This question paper comprises two sections- A and B. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question numbers 1 – 10 and 18 – 27 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 mark each. They are required to be answered in one word or one sentence each.
(iii) Question numbers 11 – 12 and 28 – 29 are short-answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answers to them should not normally exceed 60 – 80 words each.
(iv) Question numbers 13 – 15 and 30 – 32 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answers to them should not normally exceed 80 – 100 words each.
(v) Question numbers 16 – 17 and 33 – 34 are long answer questions carrying 6 marks each. Answers to them should not normally exceed 100 – 150 words each.
(vi) Answers should be brief and to the point. Also the above word limit be adhered to as far as possible.
(vii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 2 questions of one mark, 2 questions of three marks, 2 questions of four marks and 2 questions of six marks. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
(viii) In addition to this, separate
instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
SECTION
A
(Macro
Economics)
One Mark Question
1. Two components
of money supply are _____ and _____.
(Fill
up the blank with correct answer).
OR
The main aim of monetary policy is _____. (Choose the correct alternative)
a. to bring price
stability in the economy.
b. employment
generation in the country.
c. to increase
trade surplus.
d. to generate greater tax revenue.
2. State, whether
the given statement is true or false :
‘Unexpected obsolescence is a
component of depreciation.’
3. ₹ 2,000 note lying in wallet of Rohini, a student is an example of ______ (stock/flow) variable. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative.)
4. Define intermediate consumption.
5. Loans offered by commercial banks ______ (increase/decrease) the money supply in the economy. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative.)
6. The sum of
factor payments is equal to _______.
(Choose
the correct alternative.)
a.Domestic Income
b. National Income
c. Per Capita Real Income
d. Per Capita Nominal Income.
7. State, whether
the given statement is true or false :
‘Expenditure on Ujjwala Yojana launched by the Government is an example of capital expenditure.’
8. Define full
employment. (Set-1)
8. Define
Inventory (stock). (Set-2)
8. Define unplanned inventories (stock). (Set-3)
9. If the value of
Average Propensity to Consume (APC) is 0.8 and National Income is ₹ 4,000
crore, the value of savings will be _______. (Choose the correct alternative.) (Set-1)
a.
₹ 100 crores
b.
₹ 200 crores
c.
₹ 800 crores
d. ₹ 500 crores
9.
If
income rises from₹50,000 to ₹ 60,000, consumption increases from ₹40,000 to
₹48,000. In this situation, what will be the value of Marginal Propensity to
Consume (MPC)?
a. 0.80
b. 0.20
c. 0.10
d. 0.90
9. If the value of
Average Propensity to Save (APS) is 0.2 and National Income is ₹ 4,000 crore,
the value of savings will be _______. (Choose the correct alternative.) (Set-3)
a.
₹ 4000 crores
b.
₹ 3200 crores
c.
₹ 3800 crores
d. ₹ 2600 crores
10. Give any one example of ‘debt creating capital receipts’ in the Government Budget.
Three Marks Questions
11. ‘Domestic services (Household services) performed by a woman are not considered as an economic activity. ’Defend or refute the given statement with valid reason. (Set-1)
11. “Management of a water polluting oil refinery says that the it (oil refinery) ensures welfare through its contribution to Gross Domestic Product.”Defend or refute the argument of management with respect to GDP as a welfare measure of the economy. (Set-2& Set-3)
12. Calculate Net
Value Added at Factor Cost (NVAFC) from the following data: (Set-1&Set-2)
S.
No. |
Particulars |
Amount (in
₹ crores) |
i.
|
Value
of Output |
800 |
ii.
|
Intermediate
Consumption |
200 |
iii.
|
Indirect
taxes |
30 |
iv.
|
Depreciation |
20 |
v.
|
Subsidies |
50 |
vi.
|
Purchase
of machinery |
50 |
OR
State the three components of Income from Property and Entrepreneurship.
Four Marks Questions
13. Elaborate the objective of ‘allocation of resources’ in the Government Budget.
14. Define effective demand. Discuss how, effective demand can be restored, if ex-ante Aggregate Demand (AD) is more than ex-ante Aggregate Supply (AS). (1 + 3)
15. Explain the
function of Central Bank as ‘Banker, Agent and Advisor’ of the Government.
OR
Elaborate, how does a Central Bank stabilize money supply through ‘Bank Rate’.
Six Marks Questions
16. State, giving valid reasons whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) Trade deficit is always a great cause of
worry for an economy.
(ii)
Depreciation of currency has same effect on exports as devaluation of currency.
(iii) ‘Indians investing in assets abroad’ will be recorded under debit side of capital account in Balance of Payments.
OR
a. Explain, what
can be the likely impact of depreciation of the home currency on imports to the
country.
b. Distinguish between Current Account Deficit (CAD) and Current Account Surplus (CAS).
17. a. On the basis
of following information, identify whether the economy is in equilibrium or not:
(Set-1)
Sr. No. |
Particulars |
Amount |
(i) |
Autonomous
Consumption and Investment Expenditure (Ā) |
₹ 500 crores |
(ii) |
Marginal
Propensity to Save (MPS) |
0.2 |
(iii) |
National
Income |
₹ 4,000 crores |
b. Answer the following
questions on the basis of given figure :
(i) What does the shaded area AOB
indicate?
(ii) What is the significance of
point B? (1 + 2)
For Visually Impaired Candidates only:
b. (i) Define saving function.
(ii) What is the significance of dis-savings? (1 + 2)
17. a. Given the
following information, identify whether the economy is in equilibrium or not.
Sr. No. |
Particulars |
Amount |
(i) |
Autonomous Consumption and Investment
Expenditure (Ā) |
₹
200 crores |
(ii) |
Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) |
0.70 |
(iii) |
National Income |
₹
1,000 crores |
b. Answer the
following questions based on the figure given below:
(i) At which level of income,
Average Propensity to Consume will be equal to one and why ?
(ii) What is the significance of saving curve above the point B.? (1+2)
For Visually Impaired Candidates only:
b. (i) Define
Autonomous consumption..
(ii) What is the significance of dis-savings?
(1 + 2)
17. a.Given the
following information, identify whether the economy is in equilibrium or not. (Set-3)
Sr. No. |
Particulars |
Amount |
(i) |
Autonomous
Consumption and Investment Expenditure (Ā) |
₹ 700 crores |
(ii) |
Marginal
Propensity to Save (MPS) |
0.80 |
(iii) |
National
Income |
₹ 4,000 crores |
b. Answer the
following questions based on the figure given below:
(i) At which level of income,
Average Propensity to Save will be equal to zero and why ?
(ii) What does ‘OA’ signify with
respect to consumption function.
For
Visually Impaired Candidates only :
b. (i) Define consumption
function.
(ii) What is the significance of
dis-saving ?
SECTION B
(Indian Economic
Development)
One Mark Question
18. _______ policy
followed in first seven five year plans of India, aimed at substituting imports
with domestic production.
(Fill
up the blank with correct answer)
18. Which of the
following countries adopted ‘One Child Policy’ as a measure to control population?
(Choose the correct alternative.)
a. India
b. China
c. Pakistan
d.Russia
19. Which of the
following is not a benefit of organic farming? (Choose the correct alternative)
a. Cheaper inputs.
b. Attractive
returns on investment.
c. Greater import
possibilities.
d. Higher nutritional value.
20. Define mixed economy.
21. World Trade Organisation (WTO) was established in 1995, as a successor organisation to _______. (Fill up the blank with correct answer)
22. India is not a
member of which of the following regional/global economic grouping? (Choose the
correct alternative.) (Set-1&Set-2)
a. SAARC
b. BRICS
c. G-7
d. G-20
22. Great Proletarian Cultural
Revolution was introduced under the leadership of _______. (Choose the correct
alternative) (Set-3)
a. Mao Zedong
b. J.L. Nehru
c. M.K. Gandhi
d. M.A. Jinnah
23. In the past few decades _________ (primary/secondary/tertiary) sector has created maximum jobs opportunities in India. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
24. The main aim of
‘Great Leap Forward’ (GLF) in China was to ensure rapid increase of _______.
(Choose the correct alternative)
a. agriculture
b. industries
c. services
d. exports
25. Define disguised unemployment.
26. State whether
the following statement is true or false:
‘World Bank is also known as
International Bank for Registration and Delimitation (IBRD).’
OR
Define Marketed Surplus.
27. Introduction of
Economic Reforms in China took place in the year_________. (Choose the correct
alternative.)
a. 1978
b. 1980
c.
1988
d.
1991
Three Marks Questions
28. “Rapid
increase in economic growth surely trickles down to the people under the
absolutely poor category.”Defend or refute the given statement with valid
argument.
OR
“Human
Capital Formation gives birth to innovation, invention and technological
improvements.”Do you agree with the given statement? Support your answer with
valid arguments.
29. Compare and
analyse the given data of India and China, with valid reasons:
Country |
Annual Growth rate of population (2015) |
Gender Ratio (Per thousand males) |
India |
1.2% |
929 |
China |
0.5% |
941 |
Source: World Development Indicators,
2015.
Four Marks Questions
30. a. State the names of six Indian
Systems of Medicines (ISM) under AYUSH scheme of the Government of India.
b. Name any two non-conventional sources of energy.(3+1)
31. Discuss briefly
any two salient features of India’s pre-independence occupational structure.
OR
Discuss briefly the rationale behind choosing ‘self-reliance’ as a planning objective for Indian economy.
32. “India is often called as ‘Outsourcing Destination’ of the world. Discuss the prime reasons for this name given to India. (Set-1)
32.
Distinguish
between
(i) Tariff and non-tariff Barriers,
(ii) Bilateral and multilateral trade.(Set-2)
32. “Some economists believe that the economic reforms have adversely affected the agriculture sector in India.”Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with valid reason. (Set-3)
Six Marks Questions
33. Define the following: (Set-1)
(i)
Carrying
capacity of environment
(ii)
Bio-composting
(iii)
Sustainable Development
(iv) Absorptive capacity of environment
33. a. State and discuss any two
environmental concerns faced by India in the present times.
b. Discuss the importance of credit in rural development. (Set-2)
33. What is meant by sustainable development? Discuss briefly any two strategies of sustainable development. (Set-3)
34. a. Define worker-population ratio. What
does it signifies?
b. Analyse the trends in sectoral distribution of work force in India on the basis of data:
Trends in Employment Pattern (Sector-wise), 1972-2012 (in %)
Sector |
1972-73 |
1983 |
1993-94 |
1999-2000 |
2011-2012 |
Primary |
74.3 |
68.6 |
64 |
60.4 |
48.9 |
Secondary |
10.9 |
11.5 |
16 |
15.8 |
24.3 |
Services |
14.8 |
16.9 |
20 |
23.8 |
26.8 |
Total |
100.00 |
100.00 |
100.00 |
100.00 |
100.00 |
OR
a. “The Prime
Minister urged to increase the rural income by increasing non-farm activities.”
Explain how non-farm activities can lead to rise in income of people in rural sector.
b. “Indian health system needs the increased dose of public expenditure to cure itself.”Defend or refute the given statement with valid arguments.
Note:
Original pdf. of Class XII Question
Paper for Examination 2020- Code 58/4/1,2,3 is available on https://www.cbse.gov.in/cbsenew/question-paper.html
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